I was reading a few Spanish grammar texts the other day, and I came across “El subjuntivo de futuro”. I knew that Latin had no future subjunctive. It made me wonder where Spanish inherited the future subjunctive from. Can anyone shed light on this, please?
Well, I’m not certain about Spanish, but Old Occitan’s future is ultimately goes back to INFINITIVE + HABEO. If Spanish’s future has a similar pedigree, “infinitive + subj. of habeo” is easy to form.
(Old Occitan is close enough to the development of this that once and a while what looks like the future “ending” detaches and floats off to a later part of the sentence: cantarai vs. cantar … ai.)
The infinitive is right only for regular -ar conjugation verbs; it’s meant to be conjugated from the preterite stem. The conjugation of the future subjunctive, with the past subjunctive tenses, is at http://users.ipfw.edu/jehle/courses/PASTSUBJ.HTM (the future is right at the bottom).
Well, drat. I’d be very surprised if something like what I described wasn’t going on, but my OOc. grammar, which has quite a lot of comparative material, has failed me here.
And so has google.
What are your spanish grammar books calling “FUTURO del SUBJUNCTIVO”?
I can only think of PRESENTE DEL SUBJUNCTIVO (Sea, seas, sea, seamos…) This corresponds to the latin Sim, sis, sit,simus…
One of the main texts I am using to learn Latin with is in spanish. It is GRAMATICA LATINA by Agustín Mateos M. the Publishers are Editorial Esinge, 5th Edition, Naucalpan, Estado de México, MEXICO, 1990.
It may be of some help to you. If I can help you, do by all means contact me.