De Bello Gallico 2

Latin Learning Latin
1

Salvete.

I’m planning to have an italian friend record a simplified version of parts of De Bello Gallico.

I’ll gladly make the recordings available to anyone interested.

Before I record, I want to make sure I get the accent in the proper place in each word.

The text below is the bit I’m planning to have recorded.
I put the accents where I thought they should go.

If anyone spots any errors or has different information about where the accent should be placed, I’d be happy to hear from you.

Gratias ago,

David

Gállia est ómnis divísa in pártes tres. Únam pártem incólunt Bélgae et áliam pártem incólunt Aquitáni. Tértiam pártem incólunt qui ipsórum língua Céltae, nóstra Gálli, appellántur. Hi ómnes língua, institútis, légibus inter se différunt.

Garúnna flúmen Gállos ab Aquitánis divídit. Matróna et Sequána Gállos a Bélgis divídunt. Hórum ómnium, fortíssimi sunt Bélgae propteréa quod a cúltu provínciae románae longíssime ábsunt. Mínimeque ad eos mercatóres sáepe comméant átque ea quae ad effeminándos ánimos pertínent impórtant. Próximique sunt Germánis, qui trans Rhénum incólunt, quíbuscum continénter béllum gérunt.

Qua de cáusa Helvétii quóque relíquos Gállos virtúte praecédunt, quod fére cotidiánis próeliis cum Germánis conténdunt. Aut súis fínibus éos prohíbent aut ípsi in eórum fínibus béllum gérunt.

?pud Helvétios lónge nobilíssimus et ditíssimus fuit Orgetórix. Is, régni cupiditáte, coniuratiónem nobilitátis fécit et civitáti persuásit ut de fínibus súis cum ómnibus cópiis exírent: “cum virtúte ómnibus praestárent, perfácile esse tótius Gálliae império potíri.”

2

My suggestion is as follows (bold signifies changes from your version):

Gállia est ómnis divísa in pártes tres. Únam pártem íncolunt Bélgae et áliam pártem íncolunt Aquitáni. Tértiam pártem íncolunt qui ipsórum língua Céltae, nóstra Gálli, appellántur. Hi ómnes língua, institútis, légibus inter se dífferunt.

Garúnna flúmen Gállos ab Aquitánis dívidit. Mátrona et Séquana Gállos a Bélgis dívidunt. Hórum ómnium, fortíssimi sunt Bélgae proptérea quod a cúltu provínciae románae longíssime ábsunt. Miniméque ad eos mercatóres sáepe cómmeant átque ea quae ad effeminándos ánimos pértinent impórtant. Proximíque sunt Germánis, qui trans Rhénum íncolunt, quibúscum continénter béllum gérunt.

Qua de cáusa Helvétii quóque réliquos Gállos virtúte praecédunt, quod fére cotidiánis próeliis cum Germánis conténdunt. Aut súis fínibus éos próhibent aut ípsi in eórum fínibus béllum gérunt.

?pud Helvétios lónge nobilíssimus et ditíssimus fuit Orgétorix. Is, régni cupiditáte, coniuratiónem nobilitátis fécit et civitáti persuásit ut de fínibus súis cum ómnibus cópiis exírent: “cum virtúte ómnibus praestárent, perfácile esse totíus Gálliae império potíri.”

I’m a bit unsure about quibúscum…

3

íncolunt
The dictionary has in+colere
Does the addition of in bring the accent forward?

dífferunt
Why is this on the first syllable?
Spanish has difiéran. French has ils différent.

dívidit/dívidunt
Why is this on the first syllable?
Spanish has divíden. French has ils divísent.

Mátrona, Séquana
Ok. Just out of interest, how do we know the accent is on the fist syllable?

proptérea
Isn’t this just a combination of propter + ea ? (Because of it).
That’s why I think it’s propteréa.

cómmeant
Ok. Just out of interest, why is the accent on the fist syllable?

Miniméque/Proximíque/quibúscum
Is this because of the additional of the enclictic?
I’ve heard there is some disgreement about how the addition of the enclictic shifted the accent.
It seems a better weird for próximi to move to proximíque.

próhibent
The dictionary has the infinitive as pro+hibēre.
Does the addition of pro bring the accent forward?

totíus
Ok. Wheelock’s als has totíus. How reliable is this?
It seems odd that every case has the accent on tót except the genitive.

Look forward to hearing from you.

David

4

Salvete,

I read in Wheelock’s that forms such as ad edendum, ad laborandum were used for the English for eating, for working etc.

However, I was just reading an old German latin textbook from the 50’s and found this sentence:

Nunc non est tempus dormiendi et ludendi sed laborandi.
Now is not the time for sleeping and playing but for working.

Any idea why the genitive is used here?

Look forward to any comments you may have.

David

:slight_smile: Smily courtesy meae filae septorum annorum

5

Yes, for all that I know (because the o is short).

dífferunt
Why is this on the first syllable?
Spanish has > difiéran> . French has > ils différent> .

I base it solely on the fact that the e is short.

dívidit/dívidunt
Why is this on the first syllable?
Spanish has > divíden> . French has > ils divísent> .

Same as above.

Mátrona, Séquana
Ok. Just out of interest, how do we know the accent is on the fist syllable?

Not sure, to be frank; I just consulted a dictionary. I would guess it is deduced at least partly from the later developments of the names in the modern Romance languages.

proptérea
Isn’t this just a combination of > propter > + > ea > ? (Because of it).
That’s why I think it’s > propteréa> .

Note though, that the final a is long, so it is actually not as simple as propter + ea (ackusative). It may very well be the origin, but would guess it had come to be regarded as a single word, and hence also accented as one, well before classical times.

cómmeant
Ok. Just out of interest, why is the accent on the fist syllable?

The e is short.

Miniméque/Proximíque/quibúscum
Is this because of the additional of the enclictic?
I’ve heard there is some disgreement about how the addition of the enclictic shifted the accent.
It seems a better weird for > próximi > to move to > proximíque> .

Weird as it might seem, it is what all grammars say. The disagreement there is seems to be wether the accent always moves to the syllable before the enclitic, or if the resulting combined word is accented according to the normal rules. That would affect how, e.g., eaque is accented, but in the case of minimeque/proximique/quibuscum, the result is the same in either case because the syllable before the enclitic is long.

próhibent
The dictionary has the infinitive as > pro> +> hibēre> .
Does the addition of > pro > bring the accent forward?

Same as incolunt, etc.

totíus
Ok. Wheelock’s als has > totíus> . How reliable is this?
It seems odd that every case has the accent on > tót > except the genitive.

This I dare say is almost totally certain. In the majority of the cases, the classical poets treat the i in this form as long, and when they do not, it is quoted as an example of poetic licence by Quintilian.

6

[quote=“kembreg”]íncolunt
The dictionary has in+colere
Does the addition of in bring the accent forward?[\quote]
The o is short, so the accent goes on the antepenult.

[quote=“kembreg”]
dífferunt
Why is this on the first syllable?
Spanish has difiéran. French has ils différent.[\quote]
Do not rely on modern accents to place the ancient accent. The e in differunt is short, so the antepenult is correct.

[quote=“kembreg”]
dívidit/dívidunt
Why is this on the first syllable?
Spanish has divíden. French has ils divísent.[\quote]
The second i is short. This one came as a surprise to me.

[quote=“kembreg”]
Mátrona, Séquana
Ok. Just out of interest, how do we know the accent is on the fist syllable?[\quote]
Don’t know, they just are. Maybe they appeared in a poem somewhere, or the vowel qualities are known by reconstruction, whatever. Don’t know. But the o in Matrona and the first a in Sequana are long and therefore attract the accent.

[quote=“kembreg”]
proptérea
Isn’t this just a combination of propter + ea ? (Because of it).
That’s why I think it’s propteréa.[\quote]
I always pronounced it with the accent on the penult but my dictionary says that the e in ea is short, which means propTERea would be correct.

[quote=“kembreg”]
cómmeant
Ok. Just out of interest, why is the accent on the fist syllable?[\quote]
'Cause the e is short, so the accent is on the antepenult.

[quote=“kembreg”]
Miniméque/Proximíque/quibúscum
Is this because of the additional of the enclictic?
I’ve heard there is some disgreement about how the addition of the enclictic shifted the accent.[\quote]
Disagreement, really?

[quote=“kembreg”]
It seems a better weird for próximi to move to proximíque.
[\quote]
The definition of an enclitic means that the accent falls on the syllable preceding the enclitic.

[quote=“kembreg”]
próhibent
The dictionary has the infinitive as pro+hibēre.
Does the addition of pro bring the accent forward?
[\quote]
This one surprised me, too. The e is long in the infinitive, but not in the 3rd plural active indicative. So the accent goes on the antepenult.

[quote=“kembreg”]
totíus
Ok. Wheelock’s als has totíus. How reliable is this?
It seems odd that every case has the accent on tót except the genitive.[\quote]
They just do. totIus is the way I learned it, too, and I’ve never used Wheelock. Maybe somebody knows an etymological reason for it.

7

This is a Genetivus Obiectivus, a rather frequent way to express such things as you mentioned. I remember reading, that AD + Gerundium or Gerundive foremost denotes a final sense.