Hi to all!
I am wondering what the difference is between the contracted form and the uncontracted form of a verb is. For example, love:
φιλῶ (uncontracted = φιλέ-ω) ω like o in bone ἀγαπῶ (uncontracted = ἀγαπάω)
φιλεῖς (uncontracted =φιλέ-εις) ς like s in send ἀγαπᾷς (uncontracted = ἀγαπάεις)
φιλεῖ (uncontracted =φιλέ-ει) ει like ei in eight ἀγαπᾷ (uncontracted = ἀγαπάει)
Is the uncontracted part ‘-ω, -εις, ει’ just the personal pronoun, equivalent to ‘I, thou, he’?
in the section ‘Passive Aorist’ there are 2 sections with this name. Both contain sections with the Headings ‘Conjunctive’ and ‘Optative’. Why is this? Is there some mistake?
For example under Conjunctive there is
λυ-θώ
λυ-θής
λυ-θή
λυ-θώμεν
λυ-θήτε
λυ-θώσι(ν)
In general, contracted forms of verbs are used in attic literature. Goodwin 784-785 explains the cases where contracted verbs are also used in Homer and Herodotus and other dialects.
Is the uncontracted part ‘-ω, -εις, ει’ just the personal pronoun, equivalent to ‘I, thou, he’?
There is a confusion of terminology here. φιλέω is uncontracted, φιλῶ contracted, ω is the personal ending. Its not right to call the ending “just the personal pronoun”. I hope this doesn’t seem too pedantic.
I looked at the table of λύω. In the first section called aorist passive the “Conjunctive” (which I call subjunctive) is incorrectly accented. It should be as follows
λυθῶ
λυθῇς
λυθῇ
λυθῶμεν
λυθῆτε
λυθῶσι
The “conjunctive” in the second section is a garbled version of the “conjunctive” middle voice perfect. This should be constructed from the perfect participle plus the “conjunctive” (subjunctive) of εἰμί. (ὦ ᾖς ᾖ ὦμεν ἦτε ὦσι omitting the dual).
I wouldn’t trust any automatic conjugator although perhaps others have experience of programs that work. Much safer to use Smyth or Goodwin. The paradigm for λύω is set out very clearly in paragraph 480 of Goodwin.
(edited because I actually had Goodwin and not Smyth to hand)
English and French, among other languages, use the term “subjunctive”, while in German and in countries with historically strong cultural ties to Germany the term “conjunctive” is usually used. They are the same thing.
Seneca is right, but just to make sure Pedroski understands:
λυθῶ is aorist conjunctive (or subjunctive} passive.
λελυμένος ὦ is perfect conjunctive (or subjunctive) middle or passive.
The perfect conjunctive (subjunctive) middle is formed periphrastically from the perfect middle participle + present subjunctive of εἰμί.
The cite to Smyth should be sec. 385:
Attic prose always, and Attic poetry usually, use the contracted forms.
N. 1.—The open forms of verbs in -αω are sometimes found in Homer. Verbs in -εω often show the uncontracted forms in Homer; in Herodotus contraction properly takes place except before ο and ω. Verbs in -οω never appear in their uncontracted forms in any author.
N. 2.—ποιέω sometimes loses its ι (43) except before ο sounds.
Several of the Greek Grammar books available on this Textkit site will give you what you want. Go to the Home page, where they’re listed.
For verb tables I’d recommend W.G. Rutherford’s book on “Accidence,” downloadable as a pdf. You’ll find luw on pp. 66-79.
Enjoy!