In Wheelock’s, I understand the adverb olim to mean ‘recently’, but also it can mean ‘in the future’ which seems contradictory. Why is this?
I understand the noun pars to mean ‘a part’ or ‘share’ of, but why does the text also say ‘direction’?
Tibi gratias ago.
El Duce:
W/ re: to pars:
Although pars is very commonly used in the partitive genitive to mean 'a part of…" - It can be used less figuratively to describe a direction. Think of the word in terms of when people say, “In parts unknown.” Think of ‘parts’ as divisions if a compus rose. Maybe this is even more confusing. Perhaps an example is in order.
Caesar often uses ‘pars’ as a directional noun. Ex. “Interim barbari nuntios in omnes partes dimiserunt…”
“In the mean time, the barbarians sent messengers in all directions.”
You could easily substitute “into all parts” for “in all directions” and the meaning would still be clear.
W/ re: to Olim:
I’m not as familiar with olim, but I would imagine that the use as ‘in the future’ would be predicated on the tense of the verb that olim is modifying. As in, if a future tense is employed, olim would suggest ‘in the future.’
I’m not as sure about this one, and will eat my words as soon as anyone offers a better explanation.
-FV
Yes, this is right. For the future tense, one possible translation for olim is someday.
In the past tense, olim means “once upon a time” or “once” or “at one time”.
I’ll keep to pars as meaning ‘parts’ for now, but your definition has helped me. Thanks to both of you. Valete.
Elduce, I believe you may have confused olim with nuper. Wheelock’s never defines olim as “recently”, that meaning is typically assigned to the word nuper (which I have never seen used in the future).