I am supposed to translate this into Greek, “In the eyes of the majority pleasure is not the measure of virtue.”
The answer book writes, τοῖς πλείστοις ἡ ἡδονὺ οὐκ ἔστι τὸ μετρὸν τῆς ἀρετῆς."
I was wondering why there is an acute on the first syllable of ἔστι? Is the author thinking “is” should be translated “there is?”
No. This is the prescribed accentuation for εστι(ν) after οὐκ. Accentuation of εστι is something else I wouldn’t worry about at this stage (if ever). Better to correct your accentuation of μετρὸν.
Doesn’t seem like you took much away from this same thread 5 months ago - http://discourse.textkit.com/t/topic/16493/1 - where you asked exactly the same question (and, to boot, answered it for yourself within your very first post).
Different question. I did not know if this was emphatic or not.
In a sentence such as τοῖς πλείστοις ἡ ἡδονὴ οὐκ ἔστι τὸ μέτρον τῆς ἀρετῆς, οὐκ ἔστι is not emphatic. It just means “isn’t.” (X is not Y.)
If the sentence were just τοῖς πλείστοις ἡ ἡδονὴ οὐκ ἔστι, it would mean “doesn’t exist.” (X is not.)
But I suggest we leave the discussion right there, or it will get endlessly confusing. It’s just not worth trying to understand rules which don’t really make sense in the first place.