Arist. Eth. Nic. 1135a
?μοίως δὲ τὸ τοιοῦτον διω?ίσθω καὶ ?πὶ τοῦ οὗ ἕνεκα, καὶ πε?ὶ τὴν π?ᾶξιν ὅλην.
Hello,
I have two questions about two oddities (at least to me):
- I guess τοιοῦτον is a rarer form of τοιοῦτο and couples with the preceding article, right?
- What about διω?ίσθω? Could I have written διο?ίσθω instead?
Many thanks!
Thanks! Moving on:
ὁ?ταν μὲν οὐ̂ν πα?αλο?γως ἡ βλα?βη γε?νηται, ἀτυ?χημα: ὁ?ταν δὲ μὴ πα?αλο?γως, ἀ?νευ δὲ κακι?ας, ἁμα??τημα ̔ἁμα?τα?νει μὲν γὰ? ὁ?ταν ἡ ἀ?χὴ ἐν αὐτῳ̂ ᾐ̂ τη̂ς αἰτι?ας, ἀτυχει̂ δ’ ὁ?ταν ἐ?ξωθεν̓:
Is the second breathing in ἐ?ξωθεν̓ a mistake? I found it here but not here. I thought it might be a remnant of an elided subjunctive ᾖ but what do I know? 
Yeah, it’s almost certainly just a mistake.
Taking again advantage of your kindness and expertise, why is ο? accented here?
πότε?ον γὰ? ὡς ἀληθῶς ἔστιν ἑκόντα ἀδικεῖσθαι, ἢ οὒ ἀλλ’ ἀκο?σιον ἅπαν,
1136a.15
Basically, ο? is accented when it’s used on it’s own (usually, if not always, at the end of a clause) instead of negating what follows (note how it’s also not ο?κ here despite being followed by ἀλλά).