I have a question about aorist optatives: in the line οὐδ’ ἂν διαλεχθείνην γ’ ἀτεχνῶς τοῖς ἄλλοις … ["I would absolutely not speak to those others…] (Aristoph. Clouds 425), does any one know why the verb διαλεχθείνην uses the aorist passive stem? I believe it is in the optative mood because it is part of the apodosis of a future less vivid condiation with an implied protasis. The verb itself comes from διαλέγομαι δεαλέξομαι, διελεξσάμην, διείλεγμαι, διελέχθην (I converse or speak with), so it’s a deponent verb. Does that have something to do with the use of a passive stem in the optative, or is there another reason to use the passive, rather than the active, stem?
διαλέγομαι is one of those verbs that prefers to use the passive form for its aorist (in all its moods), even though there is a middle form available (διελεξάμην). There are a number of “deponents” like that.
(Your διαλεχθείνην is apparently a typo for διαλεχθείην.)
Incidentally, your analysis of the clause as “the apodosis of a future less vivid condition with an implied protasis” is quite correct, insofar that that’s the way many grammarians would describe it. I just think of opt.+ἄν as equivalent to “would” myself. It doesn’t make any difference whether there’s an if-clause or not. Or that’s what I’d say. (Would you analyze “I’d say” as the apodosis of a future less vivid condition with an implied protasis?)