Hi,
i am reading some of the Aeneid and when i look at the commentary i often find the word pathetic used- pathetic fallacy etc. What does it actually mean?
Thanks
saga_boyo
“Pathetic” has been corrupted in the last half a century or so into a relatively narrow meaning: namely, laughable. Before that, it was more commonly used to refer to the emotions. A pathetic tale was one that moved pity or sentiment. You will find this use of the word very frequently, for example, in Samuel Johnson and other 18th century writers, but it was also quite vibrant well into the 20th century, I believe. If you are familiar with the word “pathos,” roughly, intense feeling, you will understand the origin of the word. Less closely connected are “pathological” and, perhaps, “pathogen.” A dictionary would be useful here.
The pathetic fallacy is a term coined by John Ruskin, a Victorian social and literary critic. The Victorian Webhas an excellent discussion about this. In short, Ruskin used it to describe the tendency of certain authors, and especially poets, to attribute emotion to inanimate objects. So “the weeping trees” might fall into this category, because it sentimentalizes nature.
Regards,
bpq