Salvete,
another question concerning something in Adler’s exercises, this time it concerns the use of tenses.
In Exercise 100 Adler gives the following Q&A:
Why the shift from the past tense had in the English sentence to the present habet. The meaning is not the same after all. Shouldn’t it be either habuit or habebat (and which one would be more appropriate?). Is there some arcane reason for this shift? It cannot be an historical present, in my opinion. Hm…the proper use of tenses is certainly one of the more difficult aspects of any language.
Valete,
Carolus Raeticus