Is it ok to add possesive pronouns in translation when it would not make sense without them. And why are they not in the latin text?
Not only is it permissible, but often a must.
Why are they not in the latin? well, latin is latin and does not obey english grammar rules. they are generally implied from the context in latin.
And Latin is not alone in doing this sort of thing. Other languages do, too.
Et non est Latinum sola lingua quae tale facit. Aliae itidem.
Ok thanks guys! I wanted to be sure I wasn’t doing anything wrong.