τοιαύτη τίς ἐστιν (Plato, the Apology of Socrates, 19c)
My question concerns the accute accent on τίς. I’m reading this as the indefinite pronoun, rather than the interrogative.
Is it correct that the accent falls on τίς because it is followed by ἐστιν, another enclitic? The examples I found of double enclitics didn’t include the verb ἐστιν, so I’m guessing here.
Yes, it’s because of ἐστίν.
“All dissyllabic forms of the present indicative of εἰμί am and φημί say (i.e. all except εἶ and φῄς).”
Many thanks to Barry for the speedy reply, and for the reference to Smyth.
Barry, I’m thinking that by your accentuation of ἐστίν you mean to remind me that some words, in lists, isolated mentions, and before punctuation marks, bear accents omitted in the use of the word in a sentence.
It was not so meant to remind you (just typing it as I normally would), but otherwise yes.
Many thanks, Barry. I had to review that matter, before I could even pose the question. Maybe it will stick now. 