Lukas’ current post regarding Unit 30, sentence for reading number 13, has brought me finally to a crisis in my approach to learning Greek. This is a big deal for me and I am on the verge of tossing both my copy of Mastronarde and H&Q and admitting to myself that I have been played, and going back to learning Bulgarian from FSI, free material circa 1960.
I dare not run the risk of raising this issue within his post lest I be labelled a “cook too many,” so I have created a new post.
The sentence under discussion in Lukas’ post contains “… τὴν τῶν πρὸς τὸν πόλεμον ἐπιστήμην.”
As I pondered sentence 13, this phrase jumped out and assaulted me as it brought back the painful and, until then, supressed memory of a horrible discrepancy with which I grappled in vain when I started learning Greek from these two books.
I see that the noun ἐπιστήμην is related to the verb ἐπίσταμαι, understand. So the Spartans understand things about war. This makes (I think) τῶν πρὸς τὸν πόλεμον an objective genitive, since that is what is understood by the Spartans.
The genitive, τῶν πρὸς τὸν πόλεμον, is in the attributive position, coming directly after the article τὴν.
So what does Mastronarde have to say about this when he introduces the objective genitive in unit 10, page 86?
“The object of the action referred to by a noun expressing a verbal notion may be expressed by the objective genitive (normally in predicate position).”
He then gives this example: “φόβος τῶν Ἀθηωαίων,” fear of the Athenians. The genitive in predicate position as per his teaching.
H&Q has a completely different introduction to the objective genitive on page 243:
“A noun or pronoun in the genitive case can also indicate the object of a verbal action denoted by a noun. This usage is called the objective genitive. The genitive stands in the attributive position.”
Not normally as in Mastronarde, no wiggle room in H&Q.
The example given to illustrate this:
“ὀ τῶν θεῶν φόβος,” fear of the gods, attributive position as per their teaching.
And this is not the only glaring discrepancy between Mastronarde and H&Q that I have noticed, but perhaps the worst. I read both books extremely carefully and cross-reference everything. At times I almost feel that those two books are teaching different languages, and that has worried me from day one. One wrong? Or maybe both wrong?
I searched through the forum and found a post from 2019 by Lukas entitled “Objective Genitive?”
Lots of confusion about attributive versus predicate postion. The only statement in the post which was authoritative and concise was probably this by mwh:
Lukas wrote:
Tue Sep 03, 2019 8:20 pm
So if a noun comes before the verbal noun, it is subjective genitive, and if it comes after it is an objective genitive?
mwh: No, not at all. It’s not a matter of position. It’s a conceptual distinction.
A conceptual distinction, nothing to do with position. Too bad Mastronarde and H&Q couldn’t have come clean.
I used to think that Mastronarde was a tremendous book, but now I’m wondering if that wasn’t simply because I didn’t have any knowledge when I started reading it, and was thus a rather easy mark. Sort of like how the “experts” on the internet can convince people who have no solid education.
I remember a few years ago when I was in a group learning Latin and the fellow beside me, who was a university grad student in classics, leaned over and whispered: “when learning Latin you must never use a book written after about 1930.” I think this was because I had mentioned that I was using Wheelock.
Maybe the advice was only too true and I have wasted my $44.95 for Mastronarde and $52.25 for H&Q, as sold new on Amazon, when I should have spent the same amount buying used books published around 1895 from used book sellers.