I am a Christian. When I read the Bible, I encounter the text that create problems which can be solved by resorting to the original language. For example, in NT Acts 13:48, Someone said that the word “believed” in Greek is placed before the relative clause " as many as were ordained eternal life". But if that is the case, why so many translations placed the word “believed” after the relative clause " as many as were ordained eternal life"? I hope that someone in this forum can help me to get across this problem. Thank you.
Well, Greek words take the grammatical role by the declension and conjugation, while English words take it largely from their place in the sentence. So a Greek word has more freedom in choosing its place in the sentence, and the choice of place is often a matter of emphasis it assumes.