ταῦτα εἰπὼν τὰ μὲν ἐδείκνυε πολλὰ καὶ καλὰ κτήματα: τὰ δὲ κείμενα ὡς μὴ ῥᾴδια εἶναι ἰδεῖν διηγεῖτο:
Can the first τὰ be interpreted as an indic pron and πολλὰ καὶ καλὰ κτήματα as its apposition? Or is such an interpretation Homeric?
ταῦτα εἰπὼν τὰ μὲν ἐδείκνυε πολλὰ καὶ καλὰ κτήματα: τὰ δὲ κείμενα ὡς μὴ ῥᾴδια εἶναι ἰδεῖν διηγεῖτο:
Can the first τὰ be interpreted as an indic pron and πολλὰ καὶ καλὰ κτήματα as its apposition? Or is such an interpretation Homeric?