They’re both aorist passives, but I’m not sure what the difference is between them. By grammar book (Morwood) puts ‘intr’ (instransitive) next to ἐφανην but doesn’t put anything next to ἐφανθην.
I was trying to write the sentence ‘the sun appeared’ in Greek, and North and Hillard says ἐφανη should be used; is it incorrect to use ἐφανθην?
The only thing I can think is that ἐφανθην means ‘I have been revealed’, whereas ἐφανην means ‘I appeared’? But surely that makes them both intransitive? I’m struggling in general how to translate passive forms (such as the perfect middle/passive, aorist passive and future passive) of middle verbs…I assume you treat them like Latin deponent verbs, and translate them as active?