Whether it was written from Patmos, Galillee, Palestine, Ephesus or from where-ever is not that important. My point was that he who wrote it did so in Greek. That is an argument in favour of Greek being a common language where the writer came from. (I did not say proof.) Granted, it was written well after Jesus died, so it is possible that John didn’t know Greek at the time of Jesus but learned it at a more advanced age.
Why not Luke but Streeter (and the others you referred to?)
Lack of evidence for the former? Better scholarship for the latter? Those who don’t come into this discussion with the bias that Luke > must > be right, usually don’t think that Luke is always right.
Just a matter of your opinion then.
Who said he read at 12?
Luke did.
Not the Luke I know.
Actually, quite a few hispanic migrants do speak both languages. It’s only the native-born American populace that isn’t bilingual.
What was his point then?
His point was that bilingual signs are not proof “that we each “certainly” speak both languages. It would not only be presumptive but incorrect.”
Maybe I came across hostile. That was not necessary and I appologize. I was expressing surprise at your charge that cdm was lying while I had the impression that you were being antagonistic.
I didn’t say he was lying.
deliberate fallacy - lie, toma/to - toma\to.