τῇ versus πῇ.

Greek Learning Greek
1

Hello people of the forum:

I was working with a fragment from Xenophon’s Anabasis (X.An.3.1.12), doing some notes of vocabulary and a simple translation when I read a τῇ that doesn’t have any sense in that context (at least it has no sense to me, maybe for you it has sense).

So, I looked for other editions: Marchant, Hude, Masqueray put τῇ while Dindorf and Clark put πῇ (I think Clark uses Dindorf’s text).

There isn’t any information about that word among the critical notes, so I guess that the edition of Marchant, Hude and Masqueray have a print error. Could be that the case?

This is the passage from Perseus, which use the Marchant edition

περίφοβος δ᾽ εὐθὺς ἀνηγέρθη, καὶ τὸ ὄναρ τῇ μὲν ἔκρινεν ἀγαθόν, ὅτι ἐν πόνοις ὢν καὶ κινδύνοις φῶς μέγα ἐκ Διὸς ἰδεῖν ἔδοξε: τῇ δὲ καὶ ἐφοβεῖτο, ὅτι ἀπὸ Διὸς μὲν βασιλέως τὸ ὄναρ ἐδόκει αὐτῷ εἶναι, κύκλῳ δὲ ἐδόκει λάμπεσθαι τὸ πῦρ, μὴ οὐ δύναιτο ἐκ τῆς χώρας ἐξελθεῖν τῆς βασιλέως, ἀλλ᾽ εἴργοιτο πάντοθεν ὑπό τινων ἀποριῶν.

2

Marchant’s apparatus says that the 14th century “Parisinus 1640” manuscript has τη twice, but is changed to πη both times by the hand of the corrector.

3

Thank you! That’s why I love the forum. I checked the notes and in someway I didn’t read that!

Man, I’m reading the notes again and that information is there in all the editions. I don’t know how I couldn’t read it! Thank you again.