It seems that the Septuagint uses Συριστί to refer to the Aramaic language whereas the NT uses Ἑβραϊστὶ to refer to both Aramaic and Hebrew, without distinction. Is there a reason why the NT does not use the word Συριστί?
It seems that the Septuagint uses Συριστί to refer to the Aramaic language whereas the NT uses Ἑβραϊστὶ to refer to both Aramaic and Hebrew, without distinction. Is there a reason why the NT does not use the word Συριστί?