Concerning the verb rogo, rogare; could it be translated as “to ask for.”
In the sentence, “Hi viri praemia rogant,” could I translate it as, “These men ask for rewards.”? To say, “These men ask rewards,” seems so awkward, or am I just botching up the whole thing.
This particular question is very dear to me because I had very much the same problem when I first started Latin. I couldn’t see why ‘look at the sky’ was intransitive. I was taking the whole phrase ‘at the sky’ as the direct object of ‘look’; but ‘the sky’ is the object of the preposition ‘at’, and ‘look’ is an intransitive verb in English (at least most of the time, cp. ‘You look the fool’, but that’s pretty rare).
Lots of transitive Latin verbs have intransitive translations (and vice-versa). ‘rogo’ is takes the direct object ‘me’, but in English ‘ask’ doesn’t take a direct object; rather ‘rewards’ is the object of the preposition ‘for’.
cp. ‘me specta’: ‘Look at me’
‘praemia rogant’: ‘they ask for rewards’
etc.
It gets a little more complicated than that because of phrasal verbs in English - that is, verbs that are made of an ordinary verb form plus a preposition. Latin does the same thing, but adds the preposition before the verb, making a compound verb (impello = in + pello, requiro = re + quaero, etc).
Look, for instance, at this verb: look up.
-I look up a name in the phone book - here, a phrasal verb
-I look up in the sky. - here, an adverb
-I look up her sleeve. - here, a real preposition
Anyway, just suggesting that “look up” isn’t quite intransitive–at least in the first example.
As ever, bellum paxque, you bring up good points and explain them well
Also I hadn’t mentioned that English ‘ask’ can be transitive too, like ‘They ask him to do this’ (eum rogant ut hoc faciat) - certainly not Ciceronian, but good enough to get the point across without unnecessary add-ons
In this example ‘look’ is still intransitive. ‘The fool’ is not a direct object, it’s a predicate nominative, just like in the sentences:
“You are the fool”
“You seem a fool”
and so forth. Because the final part of the sentence (the predicate), renames or describes the subject, it is a predicate nominative rather than a direct object (which expresses the outcome or the person/thing affected by the verb).
[all parentheses his; Oxford English Grammar, §3.18 (Sidney Greenbaum 1996)]
Some verbs are neither intransitive (without any complement), nor transitive (accompanied by one or two objects as complements). Such verbs are copular (or linking) verbs. The most common copular verb is > be> . The complement of a copular verb is the subject predicative (P).
I should have made explicit that it was copular (and hence not intransitive or transitive).
Interesting to note! I had always lumped in copular verbs as a sub-category of intransitive verbs, but I can see why one would want to make a distinction.