Just started reading Caesar’s Gallic Wars, I have come across a strange use of the infinitive of the verb ‘flagitare’:
Interim cotidie Caesar Haeduos frumentum, quod essent publice polliciti, > flagitare> .
The translation for this sentence on Perseus is:
Meanwhile, Caesar kept daily importuning the Aedui for the corn which they had promised in the name of their state
Why is ‘Flagitare’ in an infinitive instead of a past tense: i.e. flagitavit or flagitabat?
Also, seeing as ‘Haeduos’ is clearly accusative, in what form is ‘frumentum’? meaning “for the corn”. Is it also accusative? If so why? Does flagitare take a accustaive for both the thing being demanded and from whom it is being demanded? I have not seen a sentence before that has two nouns in accusative from that both act as an object of a single verb.