Somnium Scipionis - consuli or consule?

[Rufus_Coppertop]

An illuminated manuscript of Macrobius which visited Melbourne a few years ago has “Cum in Africam venissem M Manilio consule.”

So consul is in the ablative and it makes sense to take it as an ablative absolute. ie - “with M Manilius as consul” or “in the consulship of M Manilius”.

But the Loeb and so many examples on the net have it as “cum in Africam venissem M Manilio consuli” which makes consul look like it’s in the dative.

If it’s in the dative I have no idea how the grammar works.

Consul is not an i-stem so there doesn’t appear to be a good reason for the “i”.

Is it just a typo that’s spreading like the plague?

[adrianus]

@Rufus Coppertop

“Cum in Africam venissem M Manilio consule.”
…If it’s in the dative I have no idea how the grammar works.

Nonnè aptum est hoc, Rufe Rutile: “to/for the consul Manilius”. Certìm consul omnibus imperat.
Why not “to” or “for”, Rufus? The consul is over everyone, after all.

[Rufus_Coppertop]

@adrianus

@Rufus Coppertop

“Cum in Africam venissem M Manilio consule.”
…If it’s in the dative I have no idea how the grammar works.

Nonnè aptum est hoc, Rufe Rutile: “to/for Manilius the consul”. Certìm consul omnibus imperat.
Why not “to” or “for”, Rufus? The consul is over everyone, after all.

Of course Manilio is dative as well!

Gratias tibi do. It works.