bingley
February 27, 2004, 8:58am
1
[size=200]κύριος ποιμαίνει με, καὶ οὐδέν με ὑστερήσει [/size]
If I’m reading sedction IV of the LSJ entry correctly (http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/cgi-bin/ptext?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.04.0057%3Aentry%3D%23109734 ), why isn’t this [size=200]οὐδέν ὑστερήσω[/size] ?
Skylax
February 27, 2004, 5:55pm
2
I don’t know. Maybe analogy with [size=150]φθάνω[/size] ? Hebraism ???
klewlis
February 28, 2004, 8:54pm
4
I can’t check the right resources just now, but I think it may be a somewhat irregular verb. Check out Mark 10:21, where the same form is used for present active indicative second person singular, where you would expect an εις ending.
[size=150] [21] ὁ δὲ )ιησοῦς ἐμβλέψας αὐτῷ ἠγάπησεν αὐτὸν καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ (/εν σε ὑστερεῖ· [/size]
Then the LSJ is misleading. By these two references it seems that the subject is the thing lacked and the object is the person lacking it.
Koala
March 1, 2004, 3:02pm
6
I suspect Bingley is right
compare the French use of “manquer”
[size=150]ὑστερέω[/size] : of persons, ‘lack’; of things, ὑ.τινά ‘be deficient/lacking’ to one
Ref: A Grammatical Analysis of the Greek New Testament, Zerwick and Grosvenor, 1974