Reading through the Rule of St. Benedict, I came across a construction that seems to pair ut with the infinitive to express purpose, which I hadn’t seen before. The passage reads:
Ergo, cum aliquis suscipit nomen abbatis, duplici debet doctrina suis præesse discipulis, id est omnia bona et sancta factis amplius quam verbis ostendat, ut capacibus discipulis mandata Domini verbis proponere, duris corde vero et simplicioribus factis suis divina præcepta monstrare.
The English translation reads, “he should show all good and holy things in deeds more than in words, setting out God’s commands verbally for receptive disciples, but teaching the hardhearted and less intelligent the divine precepts through his deeds.”
I’m trying to understand how the ut . . . proponere/monstrare is functioning here. Is it expressing purpose -“he should show all good and holy things . . . so as (ut) to set forth (proponere) God’s commands”? If so, it would seem to contradict the “rule” that infinitives can’t express purpose in Latin, though I realize there are exceptions to this. I appreciate any help the community can provide!
As far as I know, “ut + infinitive” is not found in Medieval Latin, even in texts exhibiting many uncommon features. This sentence as it stands is puzzling to me also.
I don’t think purpose is what is expressed here, proponere/monstrare builds on the duplex doctrina mentioned before.
“he should show all good and holy things in deeds more than in words, in order to set out God’s commands verbally for receptive disciples…” doesn’t seem to make much sense.
Well, infinitives can express purpose in Medieval Latin, as well as in Classical Latin poetry
This is so very strange it makes me suspect the text. Why not proponat and monstret? proponeret and monstraret would more easily account for the corruption, though—how strict is sequence in these texts?
ut surely consecutive (“in such a way as to”) rather than purpose.
ut > was in fact acting as a conjunction connecting the two infinitives, thereby circumventing the problems inherent in the sentence.
Huh? vero is the word that coordinates the two infinitives. Ut would join the two _debet_s. But conjecturing debet (and translating ut “as”) works.
Could debet in the first clause be understood in the clause introduced by ut? I think that would be too far a stretch–debet must have accidentally dropped out.