My question here is in regards to the examples given in Lesson 55 of “First Greek Book” by John W. White and page 69 of “Greek Grammar” by Herbert Weir Smyth.
http://daedalus.umkc.edu/FirstGreekBook/JWW_FGB55.html
Am I correct in assuming that if the noun is a masculine one, its singular accusative will have a added as its case ending while if its neuter or feminine, the case ending that will be added is v?
Or is the reason why basileus’ case ending is different from all the others another one that missed my head completely?