prosecho cum acc. +inf.

Greek Koine and Biblical and Medieval Greek
1

I was reading in Matthew chapter 6:1 and saw that Jesus uses an accusative + infinitive in an indirect command after prosecho. I could not find this construction after this verb in Liddell and Scott and was wondering whether anyone had seen it before?

2

Vir -

I’m away from my library right now, so I can’t look up any information in my resources to help. Hopefully later I’ll check BDAG to give an answer.

Just curious though, why are you wondering about this matter?

3

Surely someone possessing a blog with the word “philology” in the title can understand the philological urge to catalog all corners of Greek syntax for oneself.

:slight_smile:

4

Surely someone possessing a blog with the word “philology” in the title can understand the philological urge to catalog all corners of Greek syntax for oneself.

Annis -

Perhaps we should give an official name to this syndrome. May I propose “Philologist’s Curiosity Syndrome” or “PCS” for short?

Thanks for the reminder!

5

Albeit I endeavor to understand every construction when reading Ancient Greek, I am particularly weary of misinterpretation when reading the New Testament, so I just wanted to verify I was translating the verb correctly