The short answer is that I don’t think the meaning would be any different. The choice is likely to have been euphonic, not semantic. For the longer answer, take a look at the second half of this thread:
http://discourse.textkit.com/t/odyssey-book-ii-use-of-imperfect/11269/1
χάρις τέ σοι καὶ σοῖς ἐν ὀνόματι Ἰησοῦ.