I’m currently working through Beetham’s “Greek with Plato.” While working through the beginning of Plato’s Meno, I have encountered a construction that I am unable to understand grammatically (I understand the semantics of the sentence).
εἰ δὲ βούλει γυναικὸς ἀρετήν, οὐ χαλεπὸν διελθεῖν, ὅτι δεῖ αὐτὴν τὴν οἰκίαν εὖ οἰκεῖν, σῴζουσάν τε τὰ ἔνδον καὶ κατήκοον οὖσαν τοῦ ἀνδρός. [Meno 71e]
Why are σῴζουσάν and οὖσαν present participles? I would have expected them to be infinitives, like οἰκεῖν.
Thanks in advance for any help!