Fuerant
ad hoc rogati, fuerant ad hanc rem conlocati, ut venenum,
ut insidiae, facinus denique ipsum ut manifesto comprende-
retur.
Pro Caelio 27.64
Why is ut placed after facinus when it comes before the rest of the subjects?
No idea specifically why he would position the conjunction there, but Ive been focusing on Cicero quite a bit lately and this is the sort of thing Ive gotten used to.
Anyway, it’s probably for some rhetorical effect. By the way, isnt the purpose clause ut…comprenderetur an example of tricolon crescens?
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Excellent observation on the tricolon.
Avete amici.
As you surely know, unlike modern laguages, Latin conjunctions not necessarily must be placed in first position preceeding the subordinate clause.
There are many and varied examples of displacement in poetry. Of course, in prose it is less frequent, but it can certainly occur, specially if a rhetorical and rhythmical effect is wanted.
Have a nice day.
I just thought it seemed incongruous with the rest of the sentence because ut precedes venenum and insidiae