In Ryan’s edition it reads: "… καί τινα φωνὴν ἔδοξα αὐτόθεν ἀκοῦσαι, ἥ με οὐκ ἐᾷ ἀπιέναι πρὶν ἂν ἀφοσιώσωμαι, ὥς δή τι ἡμαρτηκότα εἰς τὸ θεῖον.
Ryan’s commentary on it: “ὥς . . . θεῖον offers, as ὡς makes clear, Socrates’ conjecture as to the grounds the δαιμόνιον had for restraining him. Τι is an internal accusative.”
I’m wondering why (1) ὥς is accented here at all, given the meaning; and (2) the accent is not changed to grave.
I dunno why it’s given an accent. By mistake?
Thanks. That had been my guess too.