φεύγουσιν, participle or finite verb?

Greek Learning Greek
1

I stumbled over φεύγουσιν in Lysias 12.58, trying at first to read it as a finite verb. The Attikos app makes me think that for this verb the present active participle, masculine plural can be the same as the finite verb, present active indicative, third person plural. Here is the context.

[58] ἀλλὰ τούτων. ὥστε σφόδρα χρὴ ὀργίζεσθαι, ὅτι Φείδων αἱρεθεὶς ὑμᾶς διαλλάξαι καὶ καταγαγεῖν τῶν αὐτῶν ἔργων Ἐρατοσθένει μετεῖχε καὶ τῇ αὐτῇ γνώμῃ τοὺς μὲν κρείττους αὑτῶν δι᾽ ὑμᾶς κακῶς ποιεῖν ἕτοιμος ἦν, ὑμῖν δὲ ἀδίκως φεύγουσιν οὐκ ἠθέλησεν ἀποδοῦναι τὴν πόλιν, ἀλλ᾽ ἐλθὼν εἰς Λακεδαίμονα ἔπειθεν αὐτοὺς στρατεύεσθαι, διαβάλλων ὅτι Βοιωτῶν ἡ πόλις ἔσται, καὶ ἄλλα λέγων οἷ ᾤετο πείσειν μάλιστα.

Am I seeing this correctly, that is that these two forms may be identical?

2

Yes the forms are identical. Given a structure like ὑμῖν δὲ ἀδίκως φεύγουσιν οὐκ ἠθέλησεν ἀποδοῦναι τὴν πόλιν it can’t be anything other than the participle, agreeing with ὑμῖν. As often, φεύγειν means to be exiled. (And οὐκ ἠθέλησεν means “he refused” rather than just “he was unwilling,” οὐκ ἤθελεν).

3

Many thanks, Michael. Most helpful.