In this phrase, “et tepidum volucres concentibus aera mulcent” most translators seem to put tepidum agreeing with aera but obviously they don’t. Is this tepidum functioning as an adverb? Thanks so much for anyone’s help.
Accusativo casu hoc verbum graecum, scilicet aera, est.
“Aera tepidum”: Aera is a Greek word in the accusative.
Thanks Adrianus. I should have spotted this before! Can “aer” be both Greek and Latin, so to speak, with genitive aeris and acc. aerem?
Yes, as you say. // Ita ut dicis.