Luke 3:17 reads; οὗτὸ πτύον ?ν τῇ χει?ὶ α?τοῦ διακαθᾶ?αι τὴν ἅλωνα α?τοῦ καὶ συναγαγεῖν το\ν σῖτον εἰς τὴν ἀποθήκην α?τοῦ, τὸ δὲ ἄχυ?ον κατακαύσει πυ?ὶ ἀσβέστῳ.
I am befuddled. What is the purpose of the relative pronoun οὖ?
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well, I don’t have a Bible around (not at home and I can’t seem to access the only site with the texts I know) so I am don’t know what is before it and whether it is at the beginning of a new sentence or not , so I am just guessing here but it seems that Kopio’s suggestion makes sence.
The relative after all is often used instead of ostis etc
Thanks to both of you.
I think that when ever I run into this construction again, it will put me dead in my tracks again. Even now, I cannot read this sentence without translating it in my mind.
I asked the same question on another forum.
There the answer I got was that it refers back to ? ἰσχυ?ότε?ος of verse 16.
That does make sense seeing that the οὖ of verse 16 refers to that as well.
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You found my post. 
Yes I did…I follow B-Greek quite a bit. From time to time I even ask questions…and even more rarely…I’ll chime in when a question is asked and I feel I have something to add (although this has been rarely indeed!) FWIW, you give a perfectly good example, and Albert is simply refusing to concede the point!
Carl Conrad is my hero. I wanna be just like him when I grow up…really…I mnean it!