Aristotle’s Metaphysics 1031b9 sq. have both οὐθέν and οὐδέν. I was wondering where such variations are believed to have originated. (Are we to suppose that Aristotle used both, or is there no evidence either way?)
Aristotle’s Metaphysics 1031b9 sq. have both οὐθέν and οὐδέν. I was wondering where such variations are believed to have originated. (Are we to suppose that Aristotle used both, or is there no evidence either way?)