προεχω or προσεχω?

Is προσχες the aor. act. imp. 2sg. of προεχω or προσεχω?

This question came up in my reading of Psalm 54:3 LXX:

πρόσχες μοι καὶ εἰσάκουσόν μου ἐλυπήθην ἐν τῇ ἀδολεσχίᾳ μου καὶ ἐταράχθην

and after looking these two verbs up in LSJ (via Logeion), CGL and Muraoka, I’m confused!!

Thanks!

πρόσχες clearly from προσ-έχω. Sometimes it’s best not to look things up!

Hah That’s what I figured from the context. Thanks!

In this passage, that’s imperative aorist active 2nd person singular from προσέχω.
It’s a short form for πρόσχες μοι <τὸν νοῦν>: pay attention to me.
We would expect πρόσσεχες, as in Plato’s Theaetetus (198b): Τῷ δὲ δὴ ἐντεῦθεν ἤδη πρόσσχες τὸν νοῦν.
But the form πρόσχες appears many times in different authors and especially in the LXX.
Hope this helps.

@tico - Yes thanks that’s what I had suspected because Muraoka in his lexicon entry for προσεχω lists προσσχες as the imperative but adds “On the spelling with -σσ- see Walters, The Text of the Septuagint: its Corruptions and their Emendations” but unfortunately I don’t have access to that work.

An interesting morphological detail: since ἔχω has a second thematic aorist in the other moods (indicative: ἔσχον etc.), we would expect the imperative σχέ (like βάλε, εἰπέ, etc.) and not σχέ-ς. It seems to follow the athematic imperative we find in θές (τίθημι), δός (δίδωμι), ἕς (ἵημι).

Thanks for pointing that out.