Ontology in Aristotle

Greek Learning Greek
1

I’m taking a brief (as possible!) detour through Aristotle’s metaphysics. So, you probably know that that “ontology” comes from the participle forms of εἶναι. The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy article on Aristotle’s metaphysics gives transliteration(s) and translation(s) as follows: on, onta - being(s). Now my question, very simply, is what gender(s) does Aristotle use when he is employing this term as a technical term? Given SEPs transliteration rules, “on” could have an omega. But I assume it is just an omicron and that all of this is neuter and Aristotle just uses the neuter forms. But I wanted to be sure because whenever I see anybody mention the etymology of “ontology” they give the masculine omega form. When SEP says “on, onta” they are just giving the neuter nom. s. and pl. because Aristotle typically does his ontovoodoo with the neuter gender? Have I got that right?

Thanks in advance!

2

I haven’t read much Aristotle, but this quote came up last year: Ἐκ μὲν οὖν αἰσθήσεως γίνεται μνήμη, ὥσπερ λέγομεν, ἐκ δὲ μνήμης πολλάκις τοῦ αὐτοῦ γινομένης ἐμπειρία· αἱ γὰρ πολλαὶ μνῆμαι τῷ ἀριθμῷ ἐμπειρία μία ἐστίν. ἐκ δ’ ἐμπειρίας ἢ ἐκ παντὸς ἠρεμήσαντος τοῦ καθόλου ἐν τῇ ψυχῇ, τοῦ ἑνὸς παρὰ τὰ πολλά, ὃ ἂν ἐν ἅπασιν ἓν ἐνῇ ἐκείνοις τὸ αὐτό, τέχνης ἀρχὴ καὶ ἐπιστήμης, ἐὰν μὲν περὶ γένεσιν, τέχνης, ἐὰν δὲ περὶ τὸ ὄν, ἐπιστήμης.

3

Yes, τὸ ὄν (“being” “the existent” etc), τὸ μὴ ὄν “not-being,” τὰ ὄντα “existents.” ἡ οὐσία also important. Later, ὁ ὤν (masc) = the existent one, ie God

4

Surely that’s Jewish/Christian? Not Aristotle?

5

To answer my own question, no Aristotle never used this. It would appear that ὁ ὤν is only a Jewish (LXX Ex 3:14, Philo) and Christian usage (beginning with John). Philo extrudes some mystical significance from it, while John makes it both Greekier and non-Greekier in Revelation: ὁ ὢν καί ὁ ἦν καί ὁ ἐρχόμενος. (Much plainer, despite ὁ ἦν !!)

τὸ ὄν comes across as pretty standard Greek substantivization to me, in contrast with the weirdness of bare ὁ ὤν (which is really a substitutive translation from Hebrew, I guess).

If anyone is interested in late Greek uses, the LSJ is a great resource for it, and will usually mention “Late” in the entry, or will quote LXX, NT., etc., uses first. I don’t know if anyone has ever created a reverse file for that specifically, but it probably wouldn’t take too much work to make.

6

What made you think of Ex 3:14? Did you check Siniossoglou out of the library? Hehe. (Note to self: Don’t let them make you spill the beans about Radical Platonism on Textkit until you are good and ready!)

7

Completing a first read through of Plato in 2023 might happen, and if it occurs, I’ll cop to the radical Platonism. But Exodus 3:14 knowledge is a legacy from a misspent youth. What I did look up was the section in Philo’s De Mutatione Nominum about ο ων, which had me wondering whether he explicitly thought “YHWH” whenever he wrote down “κυριος ο θεος”.