Is it right that “ἀγαθὸν τὸ ἵππους ἐσθίειν” might be (without sufficient context) ambiguous, as it can mean either “eating horses is good” or “it is good for horses to eat”? I am going through Dickey’s book and she is not explicit on this point. Thanks in advance.
Yes, I think it can mean either, ἵππους can be either subject or object. It would be helpful if you gave the exact reference in Dickey’s book.
Pp. 20-21
Infinitives often have not just one accusative (subject or object) but two, one the subject and the other the object. E.g. σε φασιν αυτην φιλειν, They say you like her or They say she likes you. ἀγαθὸν τὸ ἵππους ανθρωπους ἐσθίειν. Men eating horses, or horses eating people? Context will usually dispel the formal ambiguity. Word order can help but is rarely determinative.
Thanks a lot. This is especially helpful:
That’s not to say word order doesn’t matter. It does. A lot.
I.e., it is more likely that the subject precede the object?
I meant in general, not here particularly. Subject does precede object more often than not but you can’t rely on that.
Thanks! My questions likes this are motivated by my goal to acquire, eventually, a good style in composition.