I can’t get this translation, no matter how long I stare at it:[τοῖς Σκύθαις ο?κ εἴσιν οἰκίαι.] πλούσιος
οὗτός ?στιν ᾧ πλεῖστα π?όβατά ?στιν.
I have: “Households are not for Scythians. That rich man is…for whom there are many cattle.”
I know it is clumsy, and undoubtedly incorrect, but I can’t figure this out.
Chris
A dative, of a person, may be used to indicate possession.
“Scythians do not have houses. That (man) is rich, who has the most cattle.”
to make it even clearer, have in mind the following principles:
the dative of person expressing possession always goes with the verb ‘be’ (eimi), which you can accept (for the sake of easy comprehension) as equal to ‘belong’ in this case.
as to the dative itself, it is semantically similar to an English expression with the preposition ‘to’:
Skuthais = to the Scythians
emoi = to me,
etc.
(just like the dative of indirect object also usually is translated with ‘to’ in English: dos emoi = give to me).