In a translation exercise in D’ooge’s Latin For Beginners we are given “Why does Galba’s daughter give arms and weapons to the wicked farmer?”. I have translated this as “Cur filia Galbae agricolae malo armam et telam dat?”. The answer key has “Cur filia Galbae agricolae malo arma et tela dat?”. Why are arma and tela nominative here when they are the direct object of dat?
Arma is second declension, neuter, plural - no singular!
Telum is second declension, neuter, singular and plural
Plural: N arma; A arma; G armōrum; D armīs Abl. armīs
Plural: N tēla; A tēla; G tēlōrum; D tēlīs; Abl. tēlīs
HTH
Thanks, I get it. I need to memorize the declension tables properly.
Slight correction, you need to learn vocabulary, since you were right that words ending in -a are often -a declension singular (nom or abl). But they can just as often be neuter (any declension) accusative or nominative, and that can only be known if you know the word in question.
“arma virumque cano” might help as a reminder that arma is n pl. 