Mark 3:30

Greek Koine and Biblical and Medieval Greek
1

In Mark 3:30 there is a quote from Jesus, but at the end of the quote is an explanatory statment from the penman and not spoken by Jesus.

The final clause begins with ὁτι

Is this really the normal use here needing a translation of “because” or is it just setting apart the extra statement similar to a quotation mark?

2

My first instinct is to say “because”. But it is possible that my instinct is informed by my familiarity with the NASB. :wink:

I suppose it could be either way. I’d check a commentary but haven’t any for Mark here.