It seems like this is a question that would have been asked before. I did a search to see if it has been asked but could not find it.
περὶ πολλοῦ ἂν ποιησαίμην, ὦ ἄνδρες, τὸ τοιούτους ὑμᾶς ἐμοὶ δικαστὰς περὶ τούτου τοῦ πράγματος γενέσθαι, οἷοίπερ ἂν ὑμῖν αὐτοῖς εἴητε τοιαῦτα πεπονθότες:
I don’t understand fully what is going on in the part of the sentence after the comma. to be more precise I dont understand what “ὑμῖν αὐτοῖς” is doing. Why is it in the dative case?
Hypothesis: Per the Middle Liddell, the “οἷοίπερ” is a comparison. So the sense would be “those like (οἷοίπερ) you yourselves (ὑμῖν αὐτοῖς) who may have suffered these things”.
οἷος ὅς
II. [select] containing a Comparison, often without an antec., οἷος ἀστὴρ εἶσι like as a star wanders, Il.; οἷος καὶ Πάρις ᾔσχυνε like as Paris also dishonoured, Aesch.:—in this sense, οἷος is often attached to the case of its antec., πρὸς ἄνδρας τολμηρούς, οἵους Ἀθηναίους (for οἷοιἈθηναῖοι), Thuc.