Lucian Ἔρωτες 38 - ἵνα πῶς (+ subjunctive)

Greek
1

I’m trying to wrap my head around the use of ἵνα πῶς below. It seems like an unusal combination. I want to almost read ἵνα as ὥστε “with the result that how…?). I can find a faint reference to this in LSJ B.II.1 (also for ὥστε, LXX Ge.22.14,al., Plu.2.333a, Porph.Abst.2.33, etc.). Or is it some kind of parallel idiom to ἵνα τί, (and thereby retains its usual purpose meaning) ?

οὐδὲν οὖν παράδοξον, εἰ πάθος ἀρετῇ κοινὴν προσηγορίαν ἔχειν ἔτυχεν, ὥστε ἔρωτα καλεῖσθαι καὶ τὴν ἀκόλαστον ἡδονὴν καὶ τὴν σωφρονοῦσαν εὔνοιαν. 38. Γάμους οὖν τὸ μηδὲν οἴει, καὶ τὸ θῆλυ τοῦ βίου φυγαδεύεις, ἵνα πῶς μείνωμεν ἄνθρωποι; ζηλωτὸν μὲν ἦν κατὰ τὸν σοφώτατον Εὐριπίδην, εἰ δίχα τῆς πρὸς γυναῖκας συνόδου φοιτῶντες ἐπὶ ἱερὰ καὶ ναοὺς ἀργύρου καὶ χρυσοῦ τέκνα ὑπὲρ3τῆς διαδοχῆς ἐωνούμεθα

2

I don’t think it’s quite equivalent to ὥστε, though it comes close. As I read it, he’s rhetorically querying the purpose of desiderating a sexless world by way of stressing its unfeasibility: “in order for us humans to survive how?”
I.e. “What’s the point, when it would mean the end of the human race?”
Does this work do you think?

3

Thanks, yes, i think that makes some sense. πῶς is pointing back to the previous statement ‘how exactly is this to be achieved’ in order that humans may survive.