I know this is an old thread and I can’t really expect a response from the same people who took part in this discussion back then, but I’m really curious about the argument resting on Latin transcriptions of Greek words, whereby several Greek letters are transcribed using one and the same latter in Latin, which is supposed to be evidence for the fact that those Greek letters or groups of letters where pronounced the same.
Isn’t the value of Latin vowels still disputed? How do we know that Latin “i” only had one phonetic value? This seems to be the assumption behind the conclusions drawn from this about Greek pronunciation.