My question concerns the ὁ?τι at the beginning of verses 16 & 17. Do they mark the beginning (or continuation) of the discourse of John beginning in verse 15? Or does his discourse end in verse 15 and each subsequent verse should begin with ‘Because’?
I hope I’m phrasing my question correctly. Any thoughts are greatly appreciated.
Hello RKBentley. I just checked and the Greek Orthodox Church’s site, has ΚΑΙ in place of ΟΤΙ in the beginning of verse 16. It seems it’s not the only one
Thank you, Irene, for your post. Very good link. I was afraid I had not phrased my question very well.
I know that ὁ?τι can be translated ‘that’ or ‘because’ or it can introduce a direct quote and not be translated. In John 1:15, the apostle John is quoting John the Baptist. Where exactly does John the Baptist’s quote end?
Let me show it in English. Is it:
John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, “This was he of whom I spake, ‘He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me.’” [end of quote] ?
or does it continue…
“From His abundance we have all received and grace for grace.”
“The law was given through Moses: grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.” ?
Who’s speaking in 16-18? Is it John the Baptist or the apostle John? If it’s John B, the ὁ?τι could introduce his quote. If it’s the apostle, I guess ὁ?τι should be translated (and, because, or something).
Well, Kopio’s reply is as clear as it gets Just two notes :
the KAI of the Byzantine tradition doesn’t necessarily make the following verses part of the quote as I see it.
If you look at verse 19
19 Καὶ αὕτη ?στὶν ἡ μα?τυ?ία τοῦ Ἰωάννου, ὅτε ἀπέστειλαν οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι ?ξ Ἱε?οσολύμων ἱε?εῖς καὶ Λευίτας ἵνα ??ωτήσωσιν α?τόν· Σὺ τίς εἶ;
I think it is clear that the previous quote finished, John (the apostle) said something (16-18 ) and then he quotes John (the Baptist) again.
