# Isocrates 4.97 ( Panegyricus) **URL:** \ **Category:** Learning Greek\ **Created:** [July 3, 2026, 9:16pm UTC](https://www.textkit.com/t/isocrates-4-97-panegyricus/31210 "2026-07-03T21:16:57Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 6\ **Page:** 1
**Author:** ![hlawson38](https://www.textkit.com/letter_avatar_proxy/v4/letter/h/bb73d2/32.png) [@hlawson38](https://www.textkit.com/u/hlawson38)\ **Post date:** [July 3, 2026, 9:16pm UTC](https://www.textkit.com/t/isocrates-4-97-panegyricus/31210/1 "2026-07-03T21:16:57Z")
Context: Isocrates narrates the Persian wars, with pro-Athenian spin. At this point, the Athenians stand alone against Persia’s huge army, for the Spartans after their defeat at Thermopylae have gone home, and are preparing to defend themselves there. > [97] καὶ οὐδὲ ταῦτ᾽ ἀπέχρησεν αὐτοῖς, ἀλλὰ πρὸς χιλίας καὶ διακοσίας τριήρεις μόνοι διαναυμαχεῖν ἐμέλλησαν. οὐ μὴν εἰάθησαν: καταισχυνθέντες γὰρ Πελοποννήσιοι τὴν ἀρετὴν αὐτῶν. . . . My trial translation: And these things [i.e. the big Persian army] were not enough for them [the Athenians], for against 1200 [Persian] ships, they [the Athenians] alone prepared for naval battle. But [sarcastically] they [the Athenians] were not allowed this. Put to shame by their [the Athenians’] courage, the Peloponnesians [Spartans]. . . My question concerns this phrase: τὴν ἀρετὴν αὐτῶν. I have slightly revised George Norlin’s translation here. Why cannot the phrase be understood thus: “Put to shame as to their own courage, the Peloponnesians. . . .” This is the way I translated it before I compared my work with Norlin’s. I can’t find out how to rule out my error. Here’s the full section: [Isocrates, Panegyricus, section 97](https://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Isoc.+4+97&fromdoc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0143) ---
**Author:** ![bedwere](https://www.textkit.com/user_avatar/www.textkit.com/bedwere/32/35_2.png) [@bedwere](https://www.textkit.com/u/bedwere)\ **Post date:** [July 3, 2026, 9:36pm UTC](https://www.textkit.com/t/isocrates-4-97-panegyricus/31210/2 "2026-07-03T21:36:03Z")
Wouldn’t you have found έαυτών instead of αὐτῶν then? ---
**Author:** ![mwh](https://www.textkit.com/letter_avatar_proxy/v4/letter/m/6f9a4e/32.png) [@mwh](https://www.textkit.com/u/mwh)\ **Post date:** [July 4, 2026, 12:31am UTC](https://www.textkit.com/t/isocrates-4-97-panegyricus/31210/3 "2026-07-04T00:31:18Z")
Hi Hugh, A few small points: οὐδὲ ταῦτ᾽ “not even this,” and μόνοι is predicative, “to fight alone.” And τὴν ἀρετὴν αὐτῶν has to be “their” [the Athenians’] courage,” not the Pelops.’ own lack of it. καταισχυνθέντες, though passive in form, functions transitively, as if middle, “feel shame before” LSJ, or “put to shame by” as you have it. (αισχύνομαι without prefix is used similarly. It’s a tricky verb!) “But they were not allowed to” (οὐ μὴν a very strong adversative): not sarcastic, though it may seem a little dry. ---
**Author:** ![hlawson38](https://www.textkit.com/letter_avatar_proxy/v4/letter/h/bb73d2/32.png) [@hlawson38](https://www.textkit.com/u/hlawson38)\ **Post date:** [July 4, 2026, 5:24am UTC](https://www.textkit.com/t/isocrates-4-97-panegyricus/31210/4 "2026-07-04T05:24:16Z")
Many thanks to bedwere and mwh for their efforts to straighten me out. I think I had forgotten the difference between έαυτών and αὐτῶν. Is it correct that in this clause, if the pronoun is to refer to Πελοποννήσιοι , it must be έαυτών, and not αὐτῶν? I’m asking because I got this idea from a google AI search. If this is correct, and if I had remembered it, then I would have been saved from my confusion. I repeat the snip for reference: καὶ οὐδὲ ταῦτ᾽ ἀπέχρησεν αὐτοῖς, ἀλλὰ πρὸς χιλίας καὶ διακοσίας τριήρεις μόνοι διαναυμαχεῖν ἐμέλλησαν. οὐ μὴν εἰάθησαν: καταισχυνθέντες γὰρ Πελοποννήσιοι τὴν ἀρετὴν αὐτῶν. . . ---
**Author:** ![mwh](https://www.textkit.com/letter_avatar_proxy/v4/letter/m/6f9a4e/32.png) [@mwh](https://www.textkit.com/u/mwh)\ **Post date:** [July 4, 2026, 2:26pm UTC](https://www.textkit.com/t/isocrates-4-97-panegyricus/31210/5 "2026-07-04T14:26:15Z")
The difference is merely orthographic (έαυτῶν is often written αὑτῶν). and it’s really up to the reader whether to take it as reflexive or not. But here the reflexive just wouldn’t make sense. The reference is clearly to the Athenians, and your initial error was in misunderstanding the use of καταισχυνθέντες. ---
**Author:** ![hlawson38](https://www.textkit.com/letter_avatar_proxy/v4/letter/h/bb73d2/32.png) [@hlawson38](https://www.textkit.com/u/hlawson38)\ **Post date:** [July 4, 2026, 4:01pm UTC](https://www.textkit.com/t/isocrates-4-97-panegyricus/31210/6 "2026-07-04T16:01:57Z")
Thanks for the comment Michael. I see that I still have some work to do. EDIT: Eureka! Here’s an on-point definition: “Pass: to be put to shame. . .” + accusative, “before another’s courage”, with a reference to Isocrates. (s.v. Cambridge Greek Lexicon).