Indirect statements & missing participles

Thus far in my Latin studies I’ve been entirely on my own. Sometimes I’ve had questions with no one to ask and wondered if the book just doesn’t explain this or if I’m getting impatient, and the subject is discussed later in the book. :slight_smile: Anyway, I’m using Wheelock’s, and I’m at chapter 25, and I have a couple questions. Having read some of the discussion on textbooks, I was persuaded to order the Moreland and Fleischer book last night. It sounds like it is better at explaining things.

So my first question: In my sentence above, how would you translate something like “Having read the discussion”? This is a perfect active participle, which is missing in Latin.

My second question: I’m just learning about indirect sentences. It seems limited as compared to English. In English, I can write, “He thinks that…” and follow “that” with anything that, on its own, would be a complete sentence. But Latin’s indirect statements seem to be limited to particular tenses. For example, what if the indirect statement needed to be in the future perfect, such as, “He thinks that by Friday we will have raised enough money.”?

For the perfect active participle, you’d just convert it to passive.

Having read the discussion → The discussion having been read by (whoever)

Oratio lecta

In such a case the ablative absoute is often used: So to translate “having read the discussion, he understood” you could try “the discussion having been read, he understood” re lecta, intellexit. (The Latin and English here mean the same thing, even though they differ. Also, I’m not sure if res is the best translation for discussion.)

EDIT:
I just realized that in my sentence it could be preferable to put the participle with the object: rem lectam intellexit.