αυτοσ in indirect discourse with the infinitive

Greek Learning Greek
1

Hello All -

Please look at M, unit 22, exercise II.3.
The last clause is “…αυτος εφη πανυ φιλειν τον δεμον”. The key translates it as “he said that he himself mightily loved the common people”

Given that αυτος “when used in the nominative in agreement with the subject pronoun implied in the personal ending of the verb (ἑφη)(M p.101.b) it is emphatic or intensive”. Therefore I would translate the clause as “he himself said that he mightily loved the common people”

If autos is the subject of the infinitive φιλειν as the key implies, it should be in the accusative. but it is in the nominative, hence my translation as the subject of εφη.

On the other hand, I know that if the subject of the infinitive is the same as that of the main verb it is unexpressed. But that knowledge doesn’t help me understand how the translation as per the key is arrived at.

Please comment.

Thanks to all.

2

Accusative would be unlikely. Because it also agrees with the subject of εφη, it will take the nominative instead.

3

αυτος εφη πανυ φιλειν τον δημον
is actually ambiguous. Could mean either
“He said that he himself mightily loved the common people" (αυτος part of the indirect statement)
or “He himself said that he mightily loved the common people" (αυτος agreeing with the unexpressed subject of the sentence).

If the subject of the infinitive is the same as that of the main verb it may or may not be expressed, and anything agreeing with it (e.g. αυτος) will be nominative.

αυτον accusative would refer to someone other than the speaker. “He/She said that he (someone else) mightily loved the common people.”

Makes sense if you think about it.

4

Thanks to both jeidsath and to mwh.

I was sure that the subject of an infinitive must always be accusative. After reading your replies, and reviewing unit 9.4 P.79, I realized that it is not always the “case”. I stand corrected, thanks to you and many other loyal contributors to this web site.