νῦν δὲ φίλως χ’ ??όῳτε καὶ εἰ δέκα π??γοι Ἀχαιῶν
ὑμείων π?οπά?οιθε μαχοίατο νηλέϊ χαλκῷ.
Both Leaf and Seymour state that the “ei” clause functions as the object of ??όῳτε. How would this be translated, for I took it as being concessive, i.e. “even if…”?
I think what they mean is that if you read νῦν δὲ φίλως χ’ ??όῳτε as “and now you would view [it] favorably”, the rest of the phrase, εἰ δέκα π??γοι Ἀχαιῶν
ὑμείων π?οπά?οιθε μαχοίατο νηλέϊ χαλκῷ, is equal (in apposition) to “it”, the object of seeing.
that makes sense. thanks.