Some forms of Greek like tragedy uses quite frequently first-person plural to mean first-person singular, in which case only a single person is meant, namely the person who is speaking. I’ve wondered if instances like Herodotus 1.95 should be taken like this (“I”) or whether it’s a case of “inclusive we” whether both the narrator and the audience are included (“you and I”).
Hdt 1.95: ἐπιδίζηται δὲ δὴ τὸ ἐνθεῦτεν ἡμῖν ὁ λόγος τόν τε Κῦρον ὅστις ἐὼν τὴν Κροίσου ἀρχὴν κατεῖλε, καὶ τοὺς Πέρσας ὅτεῳ τρόπῳ ἡγήσαντο τῆς Ἀσίης. ὡς ὦν Περσέων μετεξέτεροι λέγουσι, οἱ μὴ βουλόμενοι σεμνοῦν τὰ περὶ Κῦρον ἀλλὰ τὸν ἐόντα λέγειν λόγον, κατὰ ταῦτα γράψω, ἐπιστάμενος περὶ Κύρου καὶ τριφασίας ἄλλας λόγων ὁδοὺς φῆναι.
In some modern genres, for example popular science and tales for children it’s quite common to use a kind of “inclusive we” to make the text more lively and in a way blur the author-reader divide, e.g. “In this book we shall see not only how Dom Theodore Baily approached the entire subject of sacred art, and evaluated the iconographic tradition that preceded him, but…”
Does this exist in Greek and can this passage of Herodotus be read like that? Or does ἡμῖν ὁ λόγος basically just mean “my story”?