ὅπως οὖν μὴ ἀπολῇ μαστιγούμενος, ἐπειδὰν οἴκοι ᾖς
Here, ἀπολῇ is either F ind med or subj, I think that in this construction both are possible, though Smyth mentions only F ind in 2213. Goodwin mentions both in 278. So why does Smyth not mention the subjunctive?
No, watch the accent
LSJ addresses the question at ὅπως A.III.8 ad fin. The future dominates, and is favored wherever possible. Still, Smyth should have mentioned the subjunctive.