Caput XVIII lingua Latina
Simul Titus idem mendum eodem modo corrigit in sua tabula neque vero magister hoc animadvertit.
My translation
At the same time Titus corrects his same error to the manner (of his writing) in his tablet and the teacher does not perceive this.
What is the sense of modo? I am assuming dative case but I had to supply the rest?
would someone explain it to me?
“modo… neque”
This construction establishes a certain relation between the manner by which someone does something and the consequence.
The English construction is like “in such a way that, so that”, &c.
Regards
gratias tibi ago.
Salve, Turendil:
My reading of this funny story is as follows: The teacher had ordered Marcus to write HOMO OCVLOS HABET, but Marcus, being a very stultus student, wrote HOMO HOCVLOS… The teacher noticed this immediately and reprimanded him for the mistake and made him erase that extra H. At the same time Marcus is correcting his error, Titus, who had also written HOCVLOS, corrects his own mistake in the same way (eodem modo), that is, by deleting the extra H, but (neque vero) the teacher does not notice Titus getting away with it. 
I don’t see any consequence here.
Hi, Amadeus,
I said there was a sort of consequence not by means of the syntactical structure itself, but because “modo…neque” establishes that such a thing was made in a certain way so that it got a unique possible result. It might be compared with the Spanish idiom “de forma que”, it implies (implicitly) the consequence that if a thing is done in a manner, the result is one concrete and cannot be other one.
He deleted his table and therefore his teacher did not realized the boy had not made his exercises correctly.
(It is only a personal reflexion on the usage of that Latin idiom, and not a serious conjecture of a Grammarian.)
P.S.: Excuse my delay in answering.
By the way, Amadeus. What chapter are you reading from Lingua Latina II?
Hi Gonzalo. “eodem modo…neque”. Following Amadeus, I think the contrast is the important thing. Titus corrects his error in the same way as Marcus “but however” he does not get caught (whereas Marcus did) or, more literally, the teacher does not notice his (Titus’s) correction. I think I understand what you mean about there seeming to be a type of consequence here (although I agree with Amadeus that there isn’t in fact), but I think you can use such a construction even when there is no consequential relationship, – just for the purpose of contrast.
Salve, Gonzale,
I understood what you said, but I think you are incorrect. Here neque just means “and… not”, and is not equivalent with “et ne”. If the text had said “eodem modo… ne” then I would agree with you about there being a consequence or result. But the fact is, Turendil is only at chapter XVIII, and ut and ne are not introduced until chapter XXVII, I think.
By the way, Amadeus. What chapter are you reading from Lingua Latina II?
I only have one chapter left to finish LLII. I have not taken the time to do the Pensa, however; that I’ll do after a second reading of the book.
Vale!
I accept your explanations, of course, and I had not said other thing but I thought -as a personal reflexion- what I had referred to.
Nice to hear that, Amadeus. I have restarted LL II -I didn’t finished it though- because I need to focus more in the Oerbergian method.
Regards